In our previous discussion on the subject of the Trinity, we outlined some common arguments advanced by the Watchtower Society, and also discussed some of the many references to the Trinity found in the Word of God.  In this discussion, I would like to give a Biblical response to some of  the main Scriptures offered by the Watchtower Society, which they claim "proves" the inferiority of Christ to Jehovah God.  As we have shown in our "Trinity" articles, the Bible abounds with proof of ONE God manifest in the 3 persons of Father, Son, and Holy Ghost.

     In John 14:28 we read the following:"Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you.  If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I."

If you are ever in a discusion with a Jehovah's Witness on the subject of the Trinity, this verse is sure to come up.  As a matter of fact, it will almost always be the first one he/she will use.  Let me suggest something at this point.  When the JW tells you that John 14:28 shows that Jesus claimed to be inferior to the Father, ask him if he can quote to you the entire verse, and tell you what the context is talking about.  I personally have NEVER met a JW who can do that.  The only portion of the verse they have been trained to memorize is the last portion, where Jesus makes the statement that "My Father is greater than I."  Was Jesus really denying His full deity and equality with the Father?  Absolutely not!  The passage, when read IN CONTEXT will clearly reveal this.

    The topic of discussion in John 14, shows Jesus telling His followers that the time was soon coming when He would no longer be with them in the flesh, but that in His place, the Father would send the Holy Spirit to act as a Comforter (John 14:16-19).  Naturally the disciples were concerned about the prospect of Christ returning to Heaven, and no longer being present with them in the flesh.  They had followed Him for almost 31/2 years, and were accustomed to sitting under His teaching, seeing Him perform miracles, watching Him raise the dead, and following His leading.  The prospect of His no longer being with them in the flesh was very troubling.  That was the whole point of Jesus' gentle reminder that the Father would send "another Comforter" (v.16 & 18). Although Christ would no longer be with them bodily, He would be with them through the presence of the Holy Spirit.  The key words of verse 28 that JWs miss, are the words in the middle of the verse:

"...If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father:" 

What was Jesus saying to the disciples?  He was telling them that, although He realized their concern, they should be happy for Him because He was returning to the Father.  He then explained why this was something to rejoice over, by saying: "for My Father is greater than I." 

To understand why His return to Heaven was such a cause for rejoicing, it is necessary to consider what actually happened when Christ came to this earth in Bethlehem's manger.  He EMPTIED HIMSELF of the glory that He had shared with His Father from all eternity in His pre-human existence.  When Jesus became man, He took upon Himself a position which was lower than that of the Father, Who was still in Heaven.  This is why He told His disciples that the Father was greater than He was.  He did not say that the Father was "better" in nature than He was, but that the Father occupied a "greater" position than He did in His earthly body.  Naturally this would be the case since Christ was in human form, and the Father was still seated on the throne in Heaven.  That was the reason He told the disciples that they should rejoice.  The "greater" position that the Father occupied wasn't due to a difference in their divine natures, but rather to Christ's temporary emptying of Himself to become a man to die for the sins of the world.  Is this just my opinion of the verse, or is there really solid Biblical evidence to prove this?  Let us now examine the Scriptural evidence, and find out.

  Let us begin by turning in our Bibles to Philippians 2:5-8, where we find a very clear description of what happened when Christ Jesus came to this earth in the form of a man.  We read....

"Let this mind be in you , which was also in Christ Jesus:  Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:  But made Himself of no reputation, and TOOK UPON HIM THE FORM OF A SERVANT, AND WAS MADE IN THE LIKENESS OF MEN:  And being found in fashion as a man,HE HUMBLED HIMSELF, and BECAME OBEDIENT unto death, even the death of the cross." 

Please notice especially the parts of the verse I have placed in all capital letters for emphasis.  If Jesus Christ "took upon" the form of a servant, then He couldn't have always been a servant, or occupied a lower position than the Father.  If He "was made" in he likeness of sinful men, then He obviously didn't always occupy that position.  If He "humbled Himself", then He wasn't always in a position lower than that of His Father.  If He "became obedient", then doesn't that mean that there must have been a time when He was under no mandate to be obedient?  JW's would have us believe that, as the first creation of Jehovah God, Jesus was always obedient to God, even before becoming man.  But, does the passage say that He was always obedient, or that He became obedient for the purpose of dying on the cross for our sins? 

Another passage that needs careful attention is found in Hebrews 2:9, where we read: 

"But we see Jesus, who was made A LITTLE LOWER THAN THE ANGELS for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that He by the grace of God should taste death for every man." 

Ask yourself this question.....Was Christ lower than the angels in terms of His nature, or because of His temporary position as a man?  Let's let the Scriptures answer.  If we turn back one chapter to Hebrews 1, we find this statement in verse 4...

"Being made SO MUCH BETTER than the angels, as He hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they."

Which is it?  Is Christ lower than the angels, or is He better?  Is there a contradiction?  Not at all, if we consider the context in which each verse is spoken.  Hebrews 2:9 deals with Christ in His emptied human state, as described in Philippians 2 (see above).  Hebrews 1:4 describes Jesus in His glorified state.  As a matter of fact, the whole 1st chapter of Hebrews deals with Christ's superiority to the angels.  Notice especially verse 6, where ALL of God's angels are commanded to worship Jesus.  "All" would also include Michael the Archangel, whom JWs erroneously believe is actually Jesus Christ.  Yet, we are told that "all" of God's angels worship Christ.  Since Michael the Archangel is not to be worshipped, then Jesus certainly is NOT Michael!   Would this worship be proper, if Jesus were anyone other than God Himself?  Men of God refuse worship, as do the angels of Heaven (Rev. 19:10; 22:8-9).  Yet worship of Christ is commanded. 

This evidently is a problem for the WT Society, as they have rendered verse 6 in the newer editions of their New World Translation as "do obescience" rather than "worship".  JW's claim that their New World Translation is the most accurate of any Bible translation, and will say that Christ wasn't really worshipped.  I happen to possess a 1970 edition of the New World Translation, which reads: "and let all God's angels worship Him."  You may want to ask the JW which edition of this "most accurate translation" is right.  Why did the WT Society change this rendering in later editions of the NWT?  It certainly isn't because of any newly discovered manuscript evidence!  They simply don't think Christ is worthy of worship, even though it is God the Father who is commanding that He be worshipped! 

John 5:23 says "That all men should honour the Son, EVEN AS THEY HONOUR THE FATHER.  He that honoureth not the Son HONOURETH NOT THE FATHER which hath sent Him." In summary, let us consider everything we've read. 

In His human state:

A.  Jesus took upon the form of a servant.
B.  He humbled Himself.
C.  He became obedient.
D.  He was made a little lower than the angels.

In His glorified state:

E.  He was so much better than the angels.
F.  He freely and appropriately received worship from the angels, at the command of God the Father.

   In light of  the obvious contrast in Scripture between Christ's 2 states, is it really a problem for Trinitarians for Jesus to say that His Father was greater than He was?  If, as a human, He was a "little lower than the angels" (who themselves are lower than the Father), then He would certainly be in a lower position than God the Father.  Again, however, this is only speaking of His human state.  That was the reason the disciples should rejoice at His return to the Father, for He would be regaining His position of majesty that He had laid aside in coming to earth.  The Scriptures make so much more sense when we consider each verse in context.  John 14:28 presents no problem whatsoever for Trinitarians, but rather, perfectly fits the rest of Scriptures' teaching that Christ emptied Himself of His glory, and was born as " Emmanuel,  which being interpreted is, GOD WITH US". 

   One other passage worth mentioning, that JW's often use to "prove" Christ is still lower than the Father is found in 1 Corinthians 11:3, which says: 

"But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God."

It should be remembered, however, that headship and superiority are 2 different things.  Just because there is an order in the Trinity, in which the Father is Head, in no way means that the Son and the Holy Ghost are unequal, or any less God than the Father.  The verse also says that the man is the head of the woman, but any reasonable minded person knows that this is simply the order that God has ordained for the home.  It in no way means that the wife is inferior in nature to her husband, or that she is any less human!  A home needs a head.  It does not need 2 heads.  The wife is still as human as her husband. 

A president of a corporation occupies a "higher position", and can be considered the "head" of his employees, but this doesn't mean he is more human than they are, or superior to them in nature.  It only refers to his position, NOT HIS NATURE!  Parents can rightly be said to be the "head" of their children.  The children are still just as human as their parents, they simply occupy a different position in the home.  Headship has nothing at all to do with nature, but rather, position. 

The WT doctrine that Christ is not God, but "a god",  has done absolutely nothing to resolve these Scriptures, but has made the problem much worse! In WT theology, you have 2 gods, a bigger God, and a lesser God.  This is clearly unbiblical, and is extensively discussed in my articles on the Trinity.

I hope this topic has been of help, not only to JWs, but also the Christians who talk to them.


WHAT ABOUT JOHN 14:28 AND OTHER VERSES?
Heaven:  Who Goes There?.
Heaven On Earth:  Will It Ever Be?
The Trinity:  Bible Doctrine Or Pagan Myth?
Tis The Season To Be Jolly:  Or Is It?
Who Is The Faithful And Discreet Slave?
An Open Letter To Jehovah's Witnesses
Home page
Jehovah's Witnesses And The Question Of Blood

The Resurrection of Christ:  Physical or Spiritual?
Hell:  The Grave or Place of Punishment?
Personal Page and Photos
Links To Other Christian Sites About Jehovah'sWitnesses
The Watchtower:  Prophetic or Just Pathetic?